DT206 Study Questions

DT206 Study Questions

1. The acronym FPD means _____.

Fixed Permanent Denture  Fit Partial Denture

Fit Permanent Denture       Fixed Partial Denture

2. An abutment is a tooth or root(s) that gives ______ to a dental prosthetic appliance.

Support                                  Reciprocation

Retention                                              Hold

3. A dental appliance that replaces one missing tooth and has two abutment teeth one on each side of the missing one is called a _____.

cantilever or wing bridge                    one-unit bridge

three-unit bridge                                  round house bridge

4. A dental appliance that has many teeth joined but does not replace a tooth is called a _____.

cantilever or wing bridge                    two-unit bridge

hree-unit bridge                                    fixed splint

5. A one abutment dental appliance is called a _____.

cantilever or wing bridge                    one-unit bridge

three-unit bridge                                   splint bridge

6. An abutment that is surrounded by missing teeth is called a _____ abutment.

terminal                                                 pontic

end                                                         pier

7. An abutment that is at an end of a fixed dental appliance is called a _____.

terminal                                                 pontic

intermediate                                         pier

8. A missing tooth being replaced as a suspended member of a fixed dental appliance is called a _____.

terminal abutment                                              pontic

end abutment                                       pier abutment

9. The part of fixed bridge that covers the abutments is a/an _____.

abutment                                                              pontic

retainer                                                  pier

10. The main function of a pontic is to:

maintain arch integrity.

restore tooth form and appearance.

restore occlusal function.

all of these.

11. The pontic type that permits free cleaning and does not touch the tissue is a _____ pontic.

Hygienic                                                                Convex tip

Saddle                                                    Ridge lap

12. The minimum amount of free space between the occlusal of the above pontic type and the tissue is _____ mm.

10                                                           5

7                                                              3

13. If less than the required space is present for the above pontic type, what pontic type is indicated?
14. Hygienic c. Ridge lap
15. Saddle d. Convex tip

14. The pontic type that most closely approximates a natural tooth but is very difficult to clean is the _____ pontic.
15. Hygienic b. Convex tip
16. Saddle d. Ridge lap

15. Between the pontic and the retainers is a part of the bridge called the _____.
16. Retainers b. abutments
17. Connectors d. pontic

16. Positive defects in or on the casting are called _____.
17. blebs pickles

voids                                                      porosity

17. Positive defects most likely caused by excess moisture during investing are ____.

blebs                                                       pickles

voids                                                      fins

18. Trapped air and excess moisture cause positive defects on the casting. Another cause for positive defects on the casting is _____.

suck back porosity                                              shrink spot porosity

excess vibration                                   pickles

19. The book “Fixed Restorative Techniques”, states that the casting must be test-fit onto the die. In class we inspected the casting before fitting it onto the die with a _____.

loupe                                                      instrument

bur                                                          microscope

20. Fitting the casting onto the die is done _____ the sprue is cut off.

Before                             after

at the same time as                      it doesn’t matter which is done first

21. Burnishing is described as _____.

abrading the surface of the casting to close a space in the margin

smoothing the surface of the casting at the margin to close a space

cutting the edge of the margin to reduce an over-extension

isking the margin to make it fit

22. Swaging a margin can be done with _____.

a sharp bur                                            a dull finishing bur

a hard dull hand instrument              both b & c

23. After burnishing or swaging the margin, the next step to finishing a crown is to _____.

adjust the proximal contacts            remove the sprue attachment

adjust the occlusal contacts              refine the occlusal anatomy

24. The substructure should be designed to restore the missing tooth structure and give the restoration a ______________________
25. Proper emergence profile
26. Fit
27. Rigid foundation
28. None of the above

25. High occlusal contacts are adjusted with _____.

1557 bur                                                                a barrel stone

an inverted cone stone                       a heatless stone

26. A “real” hyper contact on a proximal or occlusal surface will have a _____ spot in the middle.
27. a) dark                                        c)             light
28. b) rough                                      d)            no

27. A ____ ____ is used to refine the grooves on the occlusal surface.

barrel stone                                           pointed stone

#1557 bur                                             heatless stone

29. The sprue attachment is removed by a _____ stone.

barrel                                                      heatless

pointed                                                  umbrella

30. If the proximal contact is correctly fit and contoured, the restoration will only require _____ pressure to seat it onto the die.

heavy                                                     high

lateral                                                     light

31. The term Draft refers to which of the following?

The angle of taper that allows a cast restoration to removed from the preparations.

An undercut which prevents a cast restoration from being placed.

A defect in the margin of the impression.

A perfect impression.

32. The term draw refers to which of the following?

Not being able to be removed from the cast.

A reverse angle of taper on a preparation.

Being able to be removed from the cast.

A perfect impression.

33. The convenience form of a preparation is _____.

The draft of the preparation.

The draw of the casting.

The angle of taper of the preparation.

All of these are correct.

34. An undercut is:

The improper angle of taper the tooth preparation.

A preparation that diverges occlusally.

A groove that is cut parallel to the margin of a full crown preparation.

All of these are correct.

35. The proper taper for a single tooth preparation is _____^o to _____ ^o.

1 to 2                                                      5 to 10

2 to 5                                                      10 to 12

36. Convergent draw occurs when:

Two crown preparations are parallel to each other.

Two crown preparations are perpendicular to each other.

An undercut exists between two crown preparations.

An undercut exists on opposite sides of two crown preparations.

37. Divergent draw occurs when:

Two crown preparations are parallel to each other.

Two crown preparations are perpendicular to each other.

An undercut exists between two crown preparations.

An undercut exists on opposite sides of two crown preparations.

38. A mild divergent draw may be corrected by:

A rigid connector.                A non-rigid connector.

A rigid pontic.                       A non-rigid retainer.

39. The margin preparation that is considered poor is the ______ margin.

slice                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                 chamfer

40. Another name for the shoulder margin is _____ margin.

Feathered                              sleeve

Ledge                                     curved

41. The margin that works on the principle of sleeve fit is _____.

slice                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                 chamfer

42. The proper taper for a three-unit bridge preparation is _____^o to _____ ^o.

1 to 2                                      5 to 10

2 to 5                                      10 to 12

43. The most conservative tooth preparation is the ____              margin.

Slice                                        beveled shoulder

Shoulder                                                chamfer

44. The preparation that produces a margin that is difficult to seal and is prone to marginal leakage is the _____ margin.

Slice                                        beveled shoulder

Shoulder                                                chamfer

45. The preparation that is produced by cutting the margin twice is the _____ margin.

Slice                                        beveled shoulder

Shoulder                                                chamfer

46. A class 1 inlay is located where?

on the buccal surface of the tooth

on the occlusal surface of the tooth

on the facial surface of the tooth

on the distal occlusal of the tooth

47. An inlay that is located in the mesial or distal of an anterior tooth does not include the incisal edge is a _____________ inlay

class 5                                                    class 2

class 3                                                    class 4

48. A mesial occlusal distal inlay would be what class of inlay

class 5                                                    class 3

class 2                                                    class 4

49. The part of the tooth that is exposed top the oral environment is called the______________

onlay crown                                          anatomical crown

full crown                                                              clinical crown

50. A restoration that replaces all of the tooth and fills that root canal that pulp was located is called a____________

post crown                                            full crown

partial crown                                        pinledge

51. What type of restoration class II inlay is considred?

intracoronal                                          extracoronal

52. The prepared tooth that a crown or bridge is cemented to is called a/an_______________________

cast                                                         retainer

die                                                           abutment

53. The maxillary arch is larger than the mandibular arch, resulting in facial extension of the maxillary teeth over the mandibular teeth. This relationship is known as___________

overbite                                                 horizontal overjet

deep bite                                                                crossbite

54. The term_____________ occlusion relates to the static anatomic arrangement and relationship of teeth.

morphologic                                         functional

anatomical                                           protrusive

55. The activity of muscle and joints that produces mandibular movement is in function of what type of occlusion?

morphologic                                         functional

anatomical                                           protrusive

56. The position of the lower jaw that results in maximum interdigitation of the teeth is known as_________

centric relation                                     centric occlusion

centric closure                                      facial range

57. The vertical relationship between maxillary anterior teeth overlapping mandibular anterior teeth is known as_____________

overjet                                                   overbite

crossbite                                                negative overjet

58. The mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes in the buccal groove of the mandibular first molar is known as the key to occlusion.

true                                                         false

59. When the mesiofacial cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes mesial to the facial grove of the mandibular first molar is known as____________

class III malocclusion                                        class I

class II malocclusion                                          class IV

60. The cardinal feature of successful functional occlusion and providing the guidance for lateral chewing is___________

occlusal relationship                 cusp to fossa relationship

occlusal interdigitation                       canine relationship

61. The separation of teeth in the nonfunctioning segments and great importance in the function of occlusion is termed as______________

aprotrusion                                           disclusion

retrusion                                                lateral interference

62. A perfect anatomical arrangement would be considered _____.

Occlusion                                                         Functional occlusion

Morphological occlusion                 Ideal occlusion

63. __________ occlusion refers to the dynamics of occlusion.

Morphological                                      Ideal

Functional                                             Centric

64. The position of the lower jaw that results in maximum interdigitation of the teeth is __________.

Centric relation                    Functional occlusion

Centric occlusion                 Morphological occlusion

65. The position of the lower jaw that occurs when the condyles are in their most physiologic fully seated position in the glenoid fossa is known as __________.

Centric relation                    Functional occlusion

Centric occlusion                 Morphological occlusion

66. In about 90% of the population, centric occlusion is separated from centric relation by __________.

Functional occlusion                           CR/CO skid

Ideal occlusion                                     Overjet

67. The facial range of centric contacts include the __________.

Lower facial posterior cusps only

Lower facials and facial posterior cusps

Upper facial posterior cusps only

Upper incisals and facial posterior cusps

68. The lingual range of centric contacts include the __________.

Lower lingual posterior cusps only

Lower incisals and lingual posterior cusps

Upper lingual posterior cusps only

Upper incisals and lingual posterior cusps

69. Flaring of anterior teeth is a result of __________.

Posterior bite collapse

Anterior bite collapse

Anterior crossbite

Buccal crossbite

70. The cross arch curvature of the posterior occlusal plane is named____________

Curve of Spee                                      Curve of Wilson

Anterior posterior curvature              Munson’s Curve

71. The complete elimination of wax is a result of two factors. They are:

time and moisture.                              moisture and temperature.

time and temperature.        hygroscopic and heat.

72. If the mold is dry and placed in a heated oven, what is likely to happen to the investment?

The wax would melt and soak into the dry walls of the investment.

The dry ring would heat up uncontrolled causing it to crack.

The wax in the dry casting would take longer to burn-out than a wet one.

All of the above are true.

73. Wax elimination or burn-out has many purposes. Which of the following is NOT one?

Eliminate moisture in the mold.

Eliminate the wax.

Raise the temperature of the mold enough to receive the gold alloy.

To oxidize the inside of the mold.

74. The burn-out procedure provides compensation for the shrinkage of the gold alloy procedure. What is the compensation provided by the burn-out procedure called?

Thermal expansion             Hygroscopic expansion

Setting expansion                Wax expansion

75. The minimum burn-out time for a medium casting ring is about 1 hour 45 minutes according to the book. What is the amount of time necessary to add to this time for each additional casting ring in the oven?

1 minute                                                5 minutes

2 minutes                                              10 minutes

76. 7 In the low heat technique, what is the main type of expansion takes place?

Thermal expansion                             Hygroscopic expansion

Setting expansion                                Wax expansion

77. What is the correct burn-out temperature for the high heat technique?

800                                                         1000

950                                                         1250

78. What is the maximum amount of time that a casting ring may be allowed to remain

in the oven?

2 hours                                                   6 hours

4 hours                                                   8 hours

79. There are 4 distinct areas of a flame used to melt gold. What is the correct one that is to be placed on the gold?
80. a) The air blast zone       c)     The reducing zone
81. b) The combustion zone d)     The oxidizing zone

80. What procedure must be done before the casting rings are placed into the oven for burn-out?

Winding the casting machine.                Measuring the metal.

Balancing the casting machine.        Melting the metal.

81. One of the most important design requirements in a metal ceramic restoration is:

The opposing dentition must occlude into a metal part of the restoration.

The opposing dentition must occlude onto porcelain part of the restoration.

The opposing dentition must occlude onto the metal or porcelain parts of the restoration but not both.

The opposing dentition may occlude into a metal ceramic junction.

82. The minimum space necessary between the preparation and the opposing dentition in order to

restore the lingual of a maxillary anterior tooth in porcelain is __________.

0.2 to 0.3mm                        0.5 to 0.7mm

0.3 to 0.5mm                        0.7 to 1mm

83. The minimum space necessary between the preparation and the opposing dentition in order to

restore the occlusal of a tooth in porcelain is __________.

1.5 to 2mm                           0.5 to 1mm

1 to 1.5mm                           0.3 to 0.5mm

84. The maximum thickness of porcelain that will be supported by the metal substructure is __________.

2.5mm                                   1mm

3mm                                      2mm

85. The minimum space necessary between the preparation and the opposing dentition in order to

restore the incisal of an anterior tooth in porcelain is __________.

1.5 to 2mm                           0.5 to 1mm

1 to 1.5mm                           0.3 to 0.5mm

86. A square beveled margin on the preparation requires that the restoration have a __________ margin.

metal collar                           metal porcelain joint

porcelain                                               none of these

87. A chamfer margin on the preparation requires that the restoration have a __________ margin.

metal collar                           metal porcelain joint

porcelain                                               none of these

88. A deep chamfer margin on the preparation requires that the restoration have a __________ margin.

metal collar                           metal porcelain joint

porcelain                                               none of these

89. A shoulder margin on the preparation requires that the restoration have a __________ margin.

metal collar                           metal porcelain joint

porcelain                                               none of these

90. Two main methods of spruing ceramic metal castings are _________ and __________.

direct and reservoir                               indirect and direct

direct and flat                       indirect and reservoir

91. The basic weakness of the direct spruing method is the potential for __________ .

suck-back porosity                                              both of these

shrink-spot porosity                                            neither of these

92. Shrink-spot porosity is caused by __________.

too thick a sprue                                  too long a sprue

too short a sprue                                  too thin a sprue

93. Suck-back porosity is caused by __________.

too thick a sprue                                  too long a sprue

too short a sprue                                  too thin a sprue

94. The reservoir should be placed where in the ring?

outside the center of heat                  inside the center of heat

outside the casting ring       inside the casting ring

95. When casting a FPD framework using indirect spruing, what part of the casting does not have to cast?

the pattern                            the sprue

the button                                             the reservoir

96. The job of the reservoir is to __________.

supply metal to the button during solidification.

supply metal to the pattern during solidification.

supply metal to the sprues during solidification.

supply metal to the ring during solidification.

97. The burnout for a non-precious casting used in class was 30 minutes at __________ and 1 hour at __________.

800/1400                                              800/1600

800/1500                                              1200/1600

98. According to Naylor, there are three gas combinations that are used to melt ceramic metal alloys. Which one of the following is the most ideal to use?

acetylene and oxygen             propane and oxygen

natural gas and oxygen           natural gas and air

99. Due to safety reasons, which of the following gas combinations do we use for melting ceramic metal alloys?

acetylene and oxygen        propane and oxygen

natural gas and oxygen      natural gas and air

100. Due to its lower mass, ceramic metal alloys require __________.

one extra turn on the casting machine more than for gold alloys

one less turn on the casting machine than for gold alloys

the same number of turns on the casting machine as for gold alloys

no special treatment

101. The patterns to be cast should be placed __________ apart in the casting ring.

1/8 inch                                 ½ inch

¼ inch                                    1 inch

102. What part of the flame should the metal be melted in?

neutral                                   reducing

oxidizing                                                hottest

103. What is the penalty for quenching the casting after casting?

cold tears in the restoration                               short margins

incomplete casting                                              hot tears

104. A crucible used for casting ceramic metal alloys must __________.

be either zircon-alumina or quartz

not be used for any other alloy

not be clay crucibles

all of these

105. The speed of preparing the metal substructure for porcelain (finishing) is directly related to the __________.

accuracy and completeness of the wax-up

the dielectric properties of the alloy

the speed of investing

the completeness of the burnout procedure

106. Before fitting the casting on to the die, what must be done?

grind the inside of the coping with a #8 round bur

check the contacts

measure the thickness of the casting

check the internal surface of the casting with a microscope

107. According to Naylor, finishing should be done in an orderly manner. What is the correct order of the steps in finishing?

Ft the casting, remove the sprue, re-contour the sprue attachment, finish the porcelain bearing area, finish the non-porcelain bearing area, cleaning and oxidizing the coping

Remove the sprue, fit the casting, re-contour the sprue attachment, finish the porcelain bearing area, finish the non-porcelain bearing area, cleaning and oxidizing the coping.

Remove the sprue, fit the casting, re-contour the sprue attachment, finish the non-porcelain bearing area, finish the porcelain bearing area, cleaning and oxidizing the coping.

Finish the porcelain bearing area, remove the sprue, fit the casting, re-contour the sprue ttachment, finish the non-porcelain bearing area, cleaning and oxidizing the coping.

108. The preferred machine used to cut off the sprue is the __________.

low speed dental lathe

low speed dental handpiece

either low speed lathe or handpiece

high speed lathe

109. Once the finishing procedure is complete and the coping is blasted and cleaned, the coping must be oxidized. Which of the following is a reason for oxidizing the coping?

the porcelain bonds to the oxide not the metal

the oxidation process removes gasses trapped in the metal from the casting procedure

the oxidation process removes volatile contaminants not removed by blasting or ultrasonic cleaning

all of these

110. Generally, noble alloys and base alloys are oxidized differently. Noble alloys are oxidized in __________ and base alloys are oxidized in __________.

air/vacuum                           air/air

vacuum/air                           vacuum/vacuum

111. What is the major precaution necessary when fitting the coping?

take every precaution not to damage the dies

take every precaution not to damage the coping

take every precaution not to damage the articulation

just fit the coping

112. If there are any positives in the casting, what is used to remove them?

a #1/2 round bur and handpiece

a #1557 fissure bur and handpiece

a #1/2 round bur, handpiece and microscope

a #8 round bur, handpiece and microscope

113. According to Naylor, re-contouring the sprue area is best done with __________.

white heatless stone

1.0X 40mm carborundum disk

an umbrella stone

a barrel stone

124. Finishing the porcelain-bearing surface will NOT provide one of these following functions:

smooth the porcelain-bearing surface making it free of sharp angles

create microscopic undercuts that provide mechanical retention and increase surface contact area for the porcelain

cncrease the contact angle (surface tension) of the porcelain as it is applied

reduce the contact angle (surface tension) of the porcelain as it is applied

125. The science and art of providing suitable substitutes for the coronal portions of teeth” is which one of the following?

Fixed Prosthodontics                          Operative Dentistry

Fixed Restorative Techniques           Prosthetic Dentistry

126. “The branch of dental arts and science pertaining to the restoration and maintenance of oral function by replacement of missing teeth by artificial ones” is which of the following?

Fixed Prosthodontics                          Operative Dentistry

Fixed Restorative Techniques           Prosthodontics

127. A dental restoration that fits into a prepared cavity in a tooth and secured by cement is a/an_____.

onlay                                                      pinlay

inlay                                                       crown

128. A dental restoration that covers the entire occlusal surface of a tooth as well as fitting into a prepared cavity in a tooth and secured by cement is a/an _____.

onlay                                                      pinlay

inlay                                                       crown

129. A dental restoration that covers the lingual surface of a tooth as well as covering one or both proximal surfaces tooth and has 2 or 3 parallel pins is a/an _____.

onlay                                                      pinlay

inlay                                                       crown

130. A dental restoration that covers the entire occlusal surface of a tooth as well as all of the other portions of the clinical crown is a/an _____.

onlay                                                      pinlay

inlay                                                       crown

131. Inlays, Pinlays and Onlays derive their retention from ________ surfaces of the prepared tooth.

external                                                 internal

proximal                                                                gingival

132. Full and partial crowns derive their retention from ________ surfaces of the prepared tooth.

external                                 I              nternal

proximal                                                                gingival

133. The main purpose of a _____ _____ is to restore chewing function.

full crown                                                              fixed bridge

partial crown                                        Pinledge

134. A negative reproduction of a given area of the oral cavity is a/an _____.

cast                                                         die

model                                                     impression

135. A positive reproduction of a tooth that has been prepared to receive a crown or onlay is a/an _____.

cast                                                         die

model                                                     impression

136. A _____ _____ is carved to the exact form desired for a cast gold restoration.

total crown                                            sprue

die                                                           wax pattern

137. The completed wax pattern is invested in a heat resistant material called _______.

plaster                                                    investment

stone                                                      die stone

138. A wax pattern carved outside the mouth on a die is called an _____ pattern.

indirect                                                   outside

direct                                                      inside

139. A wax pattern carved inside the mouth is called a _____ pattern.

indirect                                                   outside

direct                                                      inside

140. The “MO” in MO inlay means what?

Mid Occlusal is where the inlay is located.

Mid Occlusal is where the inlay is not located.

Mesial occlusal is where the inlay is located.

Mesial Occlusal is where the inlay is not located.

141. A class 1 inlay is located where?

On the buccal surface of the tooth.

On the occlusal surface of the tooth.

On the facial surface of the tooth.

On the distal occlusal of the tooth.

142. An inlay that is located in the mesial or distal of an anterior tooth but does not include the incisal edge is a _____ inlay.

class 5                                                    class 3

class 4                                                    class 2

143. An inlay that is located in the mesial or distal of an anterior tooth and also includes the incisal edge is a _____ inlay.

class 6                                                    class 3

class 5                                                    class 4

144. A Mesial Occlusal Distal inlay would be what class of inlay?

2                                                              4

1                                                              3

145. The part of the tooth exposed to the oral environment is called the _____ ______.

onlay crown                                          anatomical crown

full crown                                                              clinical crown

146. The clinical crown may be _____ than the anatomical crown.

larger                                                      the same size

smaller                                                   all of these

147. A crown that covers the mesial, distal and lingual of an anterior tooth would be called a _____ crown.

7/8’s                                                        1/2

4/5’s                                                        3/4’s

148. A restoration that replaces all of a tooth and fills the root canal that the pulp was located is called a _____.

post crown                                            full crown

partial crown                                        Pinledge

149. The prepared tooth that a crown or bridge is cemented to is called a/an _____.

cast                                                         die

retainer                                                  abutment

150. The crown that covers the prepared tooth of a bridge is called a/an _____.

cast                                                         die

retainer                                                  abutment

151. A _____ is the portion of a dental bridge that serves as the replacement for the missing tooth or teeth.

retainer                                                  connector

abutment                                                              pontic

152. The pontic that is the most acceptable to the tissue as it has the least tissue contact is the _____ pontic form.

spherical                                                                ridge lap

high water                                             modified ridge lap

153. Area of a bridge that is between the pontic and the retainers is the _______.

retainer                                                  connector

abutment                                                              pontic

154. There are two types of connectors rigid and _____ ______.

open                                                       closed

non rigid                                                loose

155. The convenience form of a tooth preparation is:

A tapered and convergence form.

A tapered and divergence form.

An angled parallel form.

An angled perpendicular form.

156. Draw means?

A tapered and convergent convenience form.

A tapered and divergence convenience form.

An angled parallel convenience form.

An angled perpendicular convenience form.

157. Draft refers to the actual _____ of the preparation.

size                                                         draw

esthetics                                                 taper

158. A proper draft on a complete tooth preparation should be between __________ degrees.

1 and 2                                                  5 and 10

2 and 5                                                  10 and 15

159. A proper taper on each wall of a tooth preparation should be between __________ degrees

1 and 2                                                  5 and 10

2 and 5                                                  10 and 15

160. The opposite of draw is _____.

taper                                                       draft

convenience form                                               undercut

161. The junction between the tooth and the restorative material is called the _____.

draft                                                       slice

margin                                                   all of these

162. Another term that means the same as margin would be _____.

finish line                                                               chamfer

shoulder                                                 slice

163. A type of margin that is very thin, is used on a gold crown and ends in a sharp edge where the dentist stopped cutting is called a _____.

slice                                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                                 chamfer

164. A type of margin that ends in a thick butt joint is called a _____.

slice                                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                                 chamfer

165. A type of margin that is cut by two different burs and is a combination of two different margin styles is called a _____.

slice                                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                                 chamfer

166. A type of margin that is cut by a special bur that has a curved tip is called a _____.

slice                                                        beveled shoulder

shoulder                                                 chamfer

167. A margin on a crown that does not extend all the way down to the margin on the die is a _____ margin.

open                                                       ragged

super                                                      short

168. A margin on a crown that extends beyond the margin on the die is a _____ margin.

open                                                       ragged

super                                                      short

169. A margin on a crown that has a space between it and the margin on the die due to an expansion problem is an _____ margin.

open                                                       ragged

super                                                      short

170. An opening in a mold through which wax can be removed and molten gold introduced is called a _____.

hole                                                        post

entrance                                                sprue

171. The name for the hole in the investment is the _____.

sprue channel                                       sprue pin

sprue former                                         sprue base

172. The name of the metal that is left over in the sprue is the _____.

sprue channel                       sprue pin

sprue former                         both b & c are correct

173. Sprues can be made of _____.

wax                                                        metal

plastic                                                    all of these

174. Once the wax pattern is sprued and mounted onto the crucible former, the material that is vibrated into the casting is called _____.

stone                                                      christobalite

tridymite                                                                investment

175. Before the casting ring is filled the ring must be _____.

lined with mineral paper.    lined with asbestos paper.

filled with stone                    waxed

176. The reason for placing ring liner is to provide for the _____ of the casting investment.

expansion                                             filling

shrinkage                                                               thickness

177. The casting ring liner must be ____ before the investment is vibrated in.

dry                                          covered with wax

wet                                          covered with debubblizer

178. The sprue attachment must be to the ____ part of the wax pattern.

thinnest                                                  thickest

most carved                                          marginal

179. The thickness of the sprue must be the ____ as the thickness of the wax pattern.

thinner                                   thicker

same                                      has nothing to do with

180. The attachment of the sprue to the wax pattern must be _____.

smooth                                                  filleted

concave                                                 all of these

181. Another name for the sprue base is the _____.

crucible former                                     crucible base

funnel former                                       none of these

182. The two shrinkages that need to be compensated for during the cast of a dental restoration are_____.

wax & gold                                           wax & investment

wax & debubblizer                                              wax & setting

183. The three expansion used to compensate for the cast shrinkages are _____.

setting, thermal & debubblizer

setting, hygroscopic & thermal

investment, hygroscopic & thermal

setting, gold & thermal

184. Spruing a class 2 inlay should be done _____.

above the marginal ridge at a 45^o towards the occlusal

below the marginal ridge at a 45^o towards the occlusal

below the marginal ridge at a 45^o towards the gingival

above the marginal ridge at a 45^o towards the gingival

185. The complete elimination of wax is a result of two factors. They are:

time and moisture.                              moisture and temperature.

time and temperature.        hygroscopic and heat.

186. If the mold is dry and placed in a heated oven, what is likely to happen to the investment?

The wax would melt and soak into the dry walls of the investment.

The dry ring would heat up uncontrolled causing it to crack.

The wax in the dry casting would take longer to burn-out than a wet one.

All of the above are true.

187. Wax elimination or burn-out has many purposes. Which of the following is NOT one?

Eliminate moisture in the mold.

Eliminate the wax.

Raise the temperature of the mold enough to receive the gold alloy.

To oxidize the inside of the mold.

188. The burn-out procedure provides compensation for the shrinkage of the gold alloy during the casting procedure. What is the compensation provided by the burn-out procedure called?

Thermal expansion                             Hygroscopic expansion

Setting expansion                                Wax expansion

189. The minimum burn-out time for a medium casting ring is about 1 hour 45 minutes according to the book. What is the amount of time necessary to add to this time for each additional casting ring in the oven?

1 minute                                                                5 minutes

2 minutes                                                              10 minutes

190. In the low heat technique, what is the main type of expansion takes place?

Thermal expansion                             Hygroscopic expansion

Setting expansion                                Wax expansion

191. What is the correct burn-out temperature for the high heat technique?

800                                                         1000

950                                                         1250

192. What is the maximum amount of time that a casting ring may be allowed to remain in the oven?

2 hours                                                   6 hours

4 hours                                                   8 hours

193. There are 4 distinct areas of a flame used to melt gold. What is the correct one that is to be placed on the gold?

The air blast zone                                The reducing zone

The combustion zone         The oxidizing zone

194. What procedure must be done before the casting rings are placed into the oven for burn-out?

Winding the casting machine.             Measuring the metal.

Balancing the casting machine.        Melting the metal.

195. The two main types of casting machines are _____ and _____.

Centrifugal and vacuum          Torch and induction

Vacuum and pressure               Torch and oven

196. The casting crucible is the part of the casting machine that the metal is actually melted in. What must be done to this crucible before malting the metal?

It must be weighed.                             It must be preheated.

It must be filled.                   None of these.

197. The casting flux is applied to the melting gold before the _____.

casting ring is placed in the casting machine.

alloy has had a chance to melt completely.

alloy balls-up.

all of these are correct.

198. Quenching is done to cool the alloy rapidly. The alloy must lose what before quenching?

Its glow.                                 Its softness.

Its hardness                          Its shine.

199. What is the recommended amount of new alloy added to a button in order to cast a crown?

10%                                                        50%

25%                                                        75%

200. The direct method of waxing a crown:

is done in the laboratory by the dental technician.

is done in the mouth by the dentist.

is done in the mouth by the dental technician.

is done in the mouth by the dental assistant.

201. The indirect method of waxing a crown:

is done in the laboratory by the dental technician.

is done in the mouth by the dentist.

is done in the mouth by the dental technician.

is done in the mouth by the dental assistant.

202. The margin of the die is marked with the _____ _____ _____ before waxing the crown.

side of a colored pencil      tip of a colored pen

side of a black pencil          tip of a black pen

203. The _____ on the adjacent teeth should be scraped with a scalpel before waxing.

occlusal contacts                 lingual contacts

opposing contacts                               proximal contacts

204. According to the book the first liquid painted onto the die is _____.

die sealer                                               die lube

super sep                                               die spacer

205. In class the first liquid painted onto the die is _____.

die sealer                                               die lube

super sep                                               die spacer

206. The second liquid painted onto the die is _____.

die sealer                                               die lube

super sep                                               die spacer

207. Wax is applied to the die by dipping, wrapping or melting a thin layer (.5mm) to cover the preparation. This is called the _____.

coping                                                    crown

casting                                                   inlay

208. To stabilize the wax-up the _____ contact are waxed first.

occlusal                                                 opposing

incisal                                                     proximal

209. The occlusal of the opposing cast is covered with ______ before waxing a posterior crown.

tin foil                                                    aluminum foil

gold foil                                                 die lube

210. The buccal and lingual contours are established by waxing and carving the buccal and lingual _____.

grooves                                                  cusps

ridges                                                      fossi

211. The cusps that occlude in the opposing fossa is called the _____ cusp.

crushing                                                 shear

tearing                                                    stamp

212. The waxing of the occlusal surface by adding a large amount of wax in smashing down the articulator is called the ____ waxing technique.

positive                                                  negative

squish                                                     smash

213. The waxing of the occlusal surface by adding many small amounts of wax and tapping the articulator is called the ____ waxing technique.

positive                                                  negative

squish                                                     smash

214. What is done to the proximal contacts after the margins are sealed and the wax-up is sprued?

The contacts are removed.

Wax is added to the contacts.

The contacts are sprued.

The contacts are scraped.

215. The aspect of tooth or restoration that relates it to its environment is the definition of _____.

occlusal                                                 contact

emergence profile                                                contour

216. The proximal contact areas of the posterior teeth are located _____.

facial to the marginal groove

occlusal to the marginal groove

lingual to the marginal groove

gingival to the marginal groove

217. The proximal contact areas of the posterior teeth are located _____.

in the occlusal third

in the gingival third

at the junction of the occlusal to middle thirds

at the junction of the middle to gingival thirds

218. The lingual embrasure is usually _____ as the facial embrasure.

the same                                                                1/3 as large

½ as large                                              twice as large

219. The largest interproximal embrasure is the _____ embrasure.

occlusal                                                 facial

lingual                                                    gingival

220. The embrasure that is formed by the marginal ridges of two adjacent teeth coming together is the _____ embrasure.

occlusal                                                 facial

lingual                                                    gingival

221. What would happen if one marginal ridge were higher than the other?

The higher ridge would act as a backboard and would force food into the interproximal space.

The lower ridge would act as a backboard and would force food into the interproximal space.

Nothing would happen.

The opposing cusp would interfere with the marginal ridge placement.

222. The absolute dimension of a crown refers to _______.

the mesio-distal width of the tooth as indicated by the adjacent teeth and the gross inciso-gingival length as indicated by occlusion

the perceived width and length of a tooth

the way the tooth looks

measured size of the tooth

223. The apparent dimensions of a crown refer to _____.

a.the mesio-distal width of the tooth as indicated by the adjacent teeth and the gross inciso-gingival length as indicated by occlusion

b.the perceived width and length of a tooth

the way the tooth looks

measured size of the tooth

224. The apparent dimension of the crown can be adjusted by adjusting the ______ of the wax-up.

emergence profile                                                marginal ridges

developmental grooves                      line angles

225. The margin of a preparation defines the type of marginal design on the restoration. A shoulder or deep chamfer marginal preparation is good for most retainer designs except for:

a porcelain margin.                             a gold crown

a pressable ceramic crown a CAD/CAM restoration

226. The marginal design that works for a Glass-fiber supported Composite resin restoration but not a porcelain margin design is the _____ margin.

aMedium chamfer                              Beveled shoulder or slice

Deep chamfer                      Shoulder

227. The best margin for a gold crown design is a _____ margin.

aMedium chamfer                              Beveled shoulder or slice

Deep chamfer                      Shoulder

228. In order to adequately distribute the forces of mastication, there should be at least ___ retainers for a single pontic bridge.

1                                                              3

2                                                              4

229. Most forces acting upon an anterior bridge are lateral in nature. Knowing this, how many retainers would be necessary to adequately retain a bridge that replaces all of the incisors teeth on the maxillary arch?

2 – Both cuspids

6 –  both cuspid,1^st & 2^nd premolars

4 – both cuspids & 1^st premolars

None, make a removable partial denture

230. Placing two or more retainers on each side of the pontic area is referred as:

splinting                                                 double abutting

cantilevering                                         Piering

231. The retainer that is utilized between two pontics is referred as a____ retainer.

splint                                                      double

cantilever                                                              pier

232. A bridge design in which the retainers do not surround the pontics is known as a ____ bridge.

splint                                                      fixed

cantilever                                                              pier

233. A bridge that is used to hold weak teeth in position is called a ____ bridge.

splint                                                      fixed

cantilever                                                              pier

234. Most retainers on fixed bridges are full crowns, however if a doctor and patient do not want to destroy good tooth structure for bridge retainers what bridge design would be appropriate?

A California bridge design

A precision attachment bridge design

A Maryland bridge design

All of these apply equally

235. What Adams class of malocclusion would cause an Anterior Crossbite in a bridge restoration?

Class 1                                                   Class 3

Class 2                                                   Class 4

236. What Adams class of malocclusion would cause excessive overjet in a bridge restoration?

Class 1                                                   Class 3

Class 2                                                   Class 4

237. What Adams class of malocclusion would cause an edge to edge or negative overbite in a bridge restoration?

Class 1                                                   Class 3

Class 2                                                   Class 4

238. The male stereotype calls for:

Larger centrals and rotated lateral incisors.

Medium centrals and rotated lateral incisors.

Medium centrals and forward facing lateral incisors.

Larger centrals and forward facing lateral incisors.

239. The personality of the patient often works against the gender stereotype of the patient. Which of the following illustrated this?

Rounded soft teeth will look out of place on a patient with a strong personality.

Square strong teeth will look out of place on a patient with a weak personality.

Forward facing lateral incisors will make a patient look like they have a stronger personality.

Rotated lateral incisors will make a patient look like they have a weaker personality.

The perception of the personality type of the patient is effected by all of the above choices.

240. A precision attachment that is used for non-parallel abutments is a ___________.

retainer that has more than one part

connector that has more than one part

retainer that has only one part

connector that has only one part

retainer or connector that has more than one part

241. The difference between precision and semi-precision attachments is ____.

that one or more parts of a semi-precision attachment is made in the lab

that one or more parts of a precision attachment is made in the lab

that semi-precision attachment are more accurate than precision attachments

that precision attachments are less expensive than semi-precision attachments

242. There are six locations for precision attachments. Which of these locations resides inside the crown?

Extracoronal                                        Bar Type

Radicular Stud                                     Intraradicular

Intracoronal

243. The type of location that is on the top of a post and cap restoration is the _____.

Extracoronal                                        Bar Type

Radicular Stud                                     Intraradicular

Intracoronal

244. The type of precision attachment that will not be visible when the partial denture is seated would be _____.

Extracoronal                                        Bar Type

Radicular Stud                                     Intraradicular

all of these would not be visible

245. The difference between a solid Class 1a attachment and a solid Class 1b is that _____.

the Class 1a is removable by the patient

the Class 1b is removable by the patient

Class 1a is more resilient

Class 1b is more resilient

none of these apply

246. Extracoronal precision attachments have resiliency. Which class of function offers the most resiliency (ability to move in any direction) is the _____.

Class 2                                                   Class 5

Class 3                                                   Class 6

Class 4

247. The type of retention that is a result of two parallel surfaces in contact is called _____.

Mechanical                           Suction

Magnetic                                               Mechanical & Frictional

Frictional

248. The proper name for suction as represented by a denture seated onto a ridge would be called _____.

Capillary attraction                                                             Suction

Capillary force                                                     Vacuum

Viscosity

249. In an RPD attachment the buccal-lingual space is important. What should be done by the laboratory before the attachments are selected?

The denture teeth should be selected.

The denture should be set up.

The female part of the attachment should be sent   to the

dentist.

Both parts of the attachment should be sent to the dentist.

None of these apply.

250. The most critical space issue in the selection of the precision attachment is the _____ dimension.

Mesial-Distal                                        Labial- Lingual

Distal-Mesial                                        Vertical

Buccal-Lingual

251. When fabricating an RPD utilizing intracoronal attachments, the RPD framework, denture teeth and denture base are the only vertical space issues are considered. What additional vertical space issue occurs when an extracoronal attachment is used?

The denture teeth                The attachment

The denture resin                 The RPD framework

The opposing dentition

252. Cost always seems to be a factor in the selection of precision attachments. Which of the following would be considered a false economy?

Using the least expensive attachment available.

Using a replaceable plastic type of attachment.

Using a Platinum/Iridium full precision attachment.

Using a semi-precision attachment cast in the laboratory.

None of these apply.

253. A precision attachment that is used for retaining an RPD is a ___________.

retainer that has more than one part

connector that has more than one part

retainer that has only one part

connector that has only one part

retainer or connector that has more than one part

254. Auxiliary types of attachments are used with other types of attachments or restorations to improve their effectiveness. What does a hinge type attachment do?

It secures other devices together.

It is used for providing retention.

It is used to direct the stress of a partial denture saddle.

All of these are the uses of a hinge attachment.

None of these are the uses of a hinge attachment.

255. Endodonticly treated maxillary 2^nd premolars usually turn gray or brown requiring a full coverage crown to mask the color. Why do these teeth also usually need a post and core foundation?

They are single rooted teeth that may shear transversely.

They are single rooted teeth that may shear vertically.

They are multi rooted teeth that may shear transversely.

They are multi rooted teeth that will shear vertically.

They are single or multi rooted teeth that will shear transversely or vertically.

256. The post of a post and core foundation should provide more than just retention.  What else should it provide?

Support for the restoration

Equalization of the forces of mastication

Equalization of the pressure/tension theory

Reciprocation for the restoration

All of these apply

257. The resistance form of the post and core foundation is provided by:

the post being cemented deep into the root of the tooth.

the draw form of the core.

the convenience form of the post.

the coverage of the preparation by a thin layer of metal.

all of these apply.

258. The resistance form of the post and core foundation prevents:

vertical fracture of the post

transverse fracture of the post

vertical fracture of the tooth

transverse fracture of the tooth

None of these apply

259. Many times post and core foundations do not have a convenience form. If this occurs, what is the post and core going to be used for?

To protect the root of the tooth from decay.

To provide support for an overdenture or overpartial.

To provide a substructure for placement of a precision attachment.

To assist the body in maintaining a healthy ridge by retaining the root of the tooth.

All of these apply.

260. What purpose does the core of a post and core foundation have?

It provides the resistance form for the root of the tooth.

It provides the convenience form for the overcrown restoration.

It provides the retention and support for the overcrown restoration.

All of these apply.

None of these apply.

261. One of the possibilities of a post and core foundation is to fabricate a post crown. Which of the following best describes a post crown?

A post and core with a overcrown.

A core and crown as one piece without a post

A crown and post cast as one piece.

A resistance form without a convenience form.

All of these apply.

262. Which of the following situations is best supplied by a post crown?

A molar with multiple endodonticly treated roots.

An endodonticly treated very short central incisor.

A premolar with a single endodonticly treated root.

A cuspid with a 40mm root that needs a crown.

None of these apply.

263. What is a telescopic foundation is used to accomplish?

To correct the draw of a tilted tooth

To assist in the use of a precision attachments.

To prevent the endodontic treatment of a tooth.

To correct the mistakes in the preparation.

None of these apply.

264. What does the use of a telescopic foundation eliminate?

A crown                                 A bridge

A rigid connector                 A non rigid connector

All of these

265. The difficulty in producing a bridge with a partial crown as a retainer is :

it is difficult to seal the horizontal margin.

It is difficult to seal the vertical margin.

it is difficult to remove the waxed up bridge from the die without damage to the horizontal margin.

it is difficult to remove the waxed up bridge from the die without damage to the vertical margin.

266. Which type of partial crown retainer would most likely be on a premolar?

½                                                             7/8

1/3                                                          MOD inlay

¾

267. A single missing tooth on a 3-unit bridge increases the load of the abutment teeth by about ___.

25%                                                        100%

50%                                                        150%

75%

268. Pontics do not add occlusal load equally to the abutments. What tooth would load a premolar abutment on a 3-unit bridge more that the average?

A 3^rd molar                                            A 2^nd premolar

A 2^nd molar                                           A 1^st  premolar

A 1^st molar

269. What type of abutment is compromised even before the bridge is placed?

A ¾ crown abutment                          A pier abutment

A Cantilever abutment                       A wing abutment

270. Multiple missing teeth increase the stress to the abutment teeth. How can the stress be reduced to the abutment teeth?

Remove all contacts from the occlusal surfaces of the abutments.

Remove all contacts from the occlusal surfaces of the pontics.

Remove all eccentric contacts from the occlusal surfaces of the abutments.

Remove all eccentric contacts from the occlusal surfaces of the bridge

None of these apply

271. The main difference between short and long span bridges is amount occlusal loading on the abutment teeth. What is another main difference?

The number of pontics.

The types of retainers.

The materials they can be made from.

The types of pontics.

The number of abutments.

272. The pressure tension theory states that compressive force is _____ in nature.

destructive                                            constructive

cortical                                                   cancellous

273. Organic occlusion is used in conjunction with the pressure tension theory to insure that ____.

all stresses on the abutment are transmitted perpendicular to the long axes of the teeth.

all stresses on the abutment are transmitted parallel to the long axes of the teeth.

all stresses on the abutment are transmitted equally to all of the teeth.

no stress is transmitted to the abutment teeth.

274. Lingual cusps of the maxillary teeth occluding buccal to the buccal cusps of the mandibulars is what type of occlusion?

Lingual Crossbite                 Class 3 Malocclusion

Class 1 Malocclusion          Buccal Crossbite

Class 2 Malocclusion

275. The weakest link of a bridge is the connector. For each material there is a minimum sized connector. As a general rule a connector should be ____.

1mm X 1mm                                        3mm X 3mm

2mm X 2mm                                        4mm X 4mm

276. The shape of the connector should be ______.

square shaped                                      round shaped

triangular shaped                                 heart shaped

rhomboidal shaped

277. One way to decrease the loading on a bridge is to _____.

add extra pontics

decrease the width if the retainers.

remove extra pontics

decrease the width of the pontics

add additional retainers

278. Of all the types of abutments, which is the most likely to be lost?
279. pier abutments d. terminal abutments
280. cantilever abutments e. ¾ crown abutments

c double abutments

279. If all of the roots of the teeth are healthy, why should you not splint the teeth together?

The patient will not like it

The patient will loose their teeth

The patient will not brush them

The patient will not like it

The patient will not be able to floss between the teeth

280. Which of the following is NOT noble?
281. a) Gold c) Platinum
282. b) Palladium d) Silver

281. Alloys of gold require a metal to be added to increase hardness. What metal is added to gold alloys to increase hardness?
282. a) Silver c) Copper
283. b) Zinc d) Nickel

282. The grain structure of a gold alloy plays a significant role in the strength of the alloy, the finer the grain structure, the stronger the    alloy.  What metal is  the best to add to a dental gold alloy to refine       the grain structure?
283. a) Iridium c) Ruthenium
284. b) Platinum d) Palladium

283. Dental gold alloys are rated as soft, medium, hard and extra hard. What type of dental gold alloy would be considered as hard alloy?
284. a) Type 1 c) Type 3
285. b) Type 2 d) Type 4

284. Type 3 and 4 dental gold alloys are able to be heat-treated (annealed and tempered). The inter-metallic compounds AuCu and AuCu₃ are responsible.  What must be the correct ratio of Au to Cu by weight?
285. a) 90% Au to 10% Cu c) 75% Au to 25% Cu
286. b) 88% Au to 12% Cu d) 50% Au to 50% Cu

285. Dental gold solders have formulas that closely matches the gold alloys that they are meant to solder. What metal is added to dental gold solders to lower their melting ranges?
286. a) Palladium c) Silver
287. b) Nickel d) Zinc

286. What does .650 Fine solder mean?
287. a) The solder itself is .650 fine gold alloy.
288. b) The solder melts at the same temperature as .650 fine gold.
289. c) It is made to solder together .650 fine gold alloy.
290. d) It contains .650 gold.

287. What type of dental gold alloy would be used to make a 5-unit bridge with 2 abutments and 3 pontics?
288. a) Type 4 c) Type 2
289. b) Type 3 d) Type 1

288. You are going to cast a crown. You have calculated the weight of the finished crown will be 2 Dwt. 12 grains.  Your button weighs 3 Dwt. 01 grains.  How many additional 1 dwt. Ingots of new gold alloy will you add to make this casting?  (Assume you will need twice the weight of the crown minimum.)
289. a) 1 c) 3
290. b) 2 d) 4

289. You cast a bridge with 12 Dwt. 21 grains of gold total. After fitting the bridge and cutting off the sprues, your button weighed 7 Dwt. 23 grains.  How much does the bridge weigh?
290. a) 4 Dwt. 22 grains c) 5 Dwt. 02 grains
291. b) 7 Dwt. 02 grains d) Insufficient information

290. What is the average casting shrinkage of a dental gold alloy?
291. a) 1.25% c) 1.75%
292. b) 1.5% d) 2.0%

291. What is the average casting shrinkage of a dental Stellite alloy?
292. a) 1.25% c) 1.75%
293. b) 2.3% d) 2.0%
294. Cast Stellite alloys are base alloys made mostly from cobalt or nickel. What other base metal makes these metals corrosion resistant?
295. a) Chromium c) Titanium
296. b) Molybdenum d) Beryllium

294. What non-metallic element is added to Stellite alloys to increase their hardness?
295. a) Phosphorus c) Silicon
296. b) Nitrogen d) Carbon

295. Stellite alloys cannot be cast using the same reducing flux as cast gold alloys. What compound is used as a casting flux for Stellite alloys?
296. a) Potassium Phosphorus c) Potassium Cyanide
297. b) Potassium Fluoride
298. d) Boric Acid

296. When making a soldering flux for gold alloys, reducing flux is mixed with Vaseline. What is mixed with Stellite casting flux to make welding flux for Stellite alloys?
297. a) Vaseline c) Water
298. b) Alcohol d) Chloroform

297. The Austenistic stainless steel alloy referred at as 18-8 means that there is 18% __________ and 8% ___________.
298. a) Carbon/nickel c) Chromium/carbon
299. b) Chromium/nickel d) Molybdenum/manganese

298. The metal that lowers the melting range of Nickel-based Stellite alloys allowing them to become more fluid and is extremely hazardous to you health is ___________.
299. a) Tungsten c) Beryllium
300. b) Molybdenum d) Iron

299. Type 1 – 4 dental gold alloys can be melted with a natural gas and compressed air torch. What type of gasses must be used to melt PFM alloys, both noble and Stellite?
300. a) Natural gas & atmospheric air c) Natural gas & propane
301. b) Natural gas & compressed air d) Natural gas & oxygen

300. What type of investment would be used for casting a PFM alloy made predominantly from palladium and silver?
301. a) Gypsum bound c) Silicate bound
302. b) Phosphate bound w/carbon d) Phosphate bound w/o carbon

301. Ideally, the mandibular central incisor contacts the maxillary central incisor at the __________.
302. mesial incisal edge and the lingual fossa
303. distal incisal edge and the lingual fossa
304. mesial marginal ridge and lingual fossa
305. distal marginal ridge and lingual fossa

302. Ideally, the mandibular cuspid contacts the maxillary lateral and cuspid at the __________.
303. distal marginal ridge of the lateral and the mesial lingual of the cuspid
304. distal marginal ridge of the lateral and the mesial incisal the cuspid
305. distal incisal edge of the lateral and the mesial incisal of the                cuspid
306. distal incisal edge of the lateral and the mesial lingual of the               cuspid

303. Ideally, the mandibular 2^nd premolar facial cusp contacts the maxillary __________.
304. 1^st premolar at the distal marginal ridge
305. 1^st premolar at the mesial marginal ridge
306. 2^nd premolar at the distal marginal ridge
307. 2^nd premolar at the mesial marginal ridge

304. Ideally, the mesio-facial cusp of the mandibular 1^st molar contacts the maxillary __________.
305. 2^nd premolar at the mesial marginal ridge
306. 2^nd premolar at the distal marginal ridge
307. 1^st molar at the mesial marginal ridge
308. 1^st molar at the distal marginal ridge

305. Ideally, the distofacial cusp of the mandibular 1^st molar contacts the maxillary __________.
306. 1^st molar at the mesial marginal ridge
307. 1^st molar at the mesial pit area
308. 1^st molar at the central pit area
309. 1^st molar at the distal pit area

306. Ideally, the mesio-facial cusp of the mandibular 2^nd molar contacts maxillary _________.
307. 2^nd molar mesial marginal ridge
308. 2^nd molar mesial pit area
309. 2^nd molar central pit area
310. 1^st molar distal marginal ridge

307. Ideally, the disto-lingual cusp of the maxillary 1^st molar contacts the mandibular __________.
308. 1^st molar central pit area
309. 1^st molar distal pit area
310. 1^st molar distal marginal ridge
311. 2^nd molar mesial marginal ridge

308. Ideally, the lingual cusp of the maxillary 1^st premolar contacts the mandibular  __________.
309. 2^nd premolar mesial pit area
310. 2^nd premolar mesial marginal ridge
311. 1^st premolar distal marginal ridge
312. 1^st premolar mesial marginal ridge

309. The mandibular central incisor podded contacts on the maxillary central incisor at the        __________.
310. mesial incisal edge and the lingual fossa
311. distal incisal edge and the lingual fossa
312. mesial marginal ridge and lingual fossa
313. distal marginal ridge and lingual fossa

310. The mandibular cuspid podded contacts on the maxillary lateral and cuspid at the __________.
311. distal marginal ridge of the lateral and the mesial lingual of the cuspid
312. distal marginal ridge of the lateral and the mesial incisal the cuspid
313. distal incisal edge of the lateral and the mesial incisal of the                cuspid
314. distal incisal edge of the lateral and the mesial lingual of the               cuspid

311. The mandibular 2^nd premolar facial cusp poded contacts on the maxillary __________.
312. 1^st premolar at the distal marginal ridge
313. 1^st premolar at the mesial marginal ridge
314. 2^nd premolar at the distal marginal ridge
315. 2^nd premolar at the mesial marginal ridge

312. The disto-facial cusp of the mandibular 1^st molar podded contacts on the maxillary __________.
313. 1^st molar at the mesial marginal ridge
314. 1^st molar at the mesial pit area
315. 1^st molar at the central pit area
316. 1^st molar at the distal pit area

313. The distal cusp of the mandibular 1^st molar podded contacts on the maxillary __________.
314. 1^st molar at the distal pit area
315. 1^st molar at the distal marginal ridge
316. 2^nd molar at the mesial marginal ridge
317. 2^nd molar at the mesial pit area

314. The disto-facial cusp of the mandibular 2^nd molar podded contacts on the maxillary __________.
315. 2^nd molar distal marginal ridge
316. 2^nd molar distal pit area
317. 2^nd molar central pit area
318. 2^nd molar mesial pit area

315. The lingual cusp of the maxillary 2^nd premolar podded contacts on the mandibular __________.
316. 2^nd premolar distal marginal ridge
317. 2^nd premolar distal pit area
318. 1^st molar mesial marginal ridge
319. 1^st molar mesial pit area

316. The mesio-lingual cusp of the maxillary 1^st molar podded contacts on the mandibular  ____________.
317. 2^nd premolar distal marginal ridge
318. 1^st molar mesial marginal ridge
319. 1^st molar mesial pit area
320. 1^st molar central pit area

317. The disto-lingual cusp of the maxillary 1^st molar podded contacts on the mandibular __________.
318. 1^st molar central pit area
319. 1^st molar distal pit area
320. 1^st molar distal marginal ridge
321. 2^nd molar mesial marginal ridge

318. The lingual cusp of the maxillary 1^st premolar podded contacts on the mandibular  __________.
319. 2^nd premolar mesial pit area
320. 2^nd premolar mesial marginal ridge
321. 1^st premolar distal marginal ridge
322. 1^st premolar mesial marginal ridge

319. In left lateral occlusion (working), the _____.
320. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle translates.
321. Right condyle rotates while the left condyle translates.
322. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle rotates.
323. Left condyle translates while the right condyle translates.

320. In right lateral occlusion (working), the _____.
321. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle translates.
322. Right condyle rotates while the left condyle translates.
323. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle rotates.
324. Left condyle translates while the right condyle translates.

321. In protrusive, the _____.
322. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle translates.
323. Right condyle rotates while the left condyle translates.
324. Left condyle rotates while the right condyle rotates.
325. Left condyle translates while the right condyle translates.

322. Disclusion is the _____.
323. Opening of the occlusion on side to which the mandible is moving.
324. Opening of the occlusion on side opposite to which the mandible is moving.
325. Closing of the occlusion on side to which the mandible is moving.
326. Closing of the occlusion on side to which the mandible is moving.

323. The articular eminence is the _____.
324. Surface of the temporal bone that angles down and forward of the glenoid fossa.
325. Surface of the ethmoid bone that angles down and forward of the condular fossa.
326. Surface of the temporal bone that angles up and back of the glenoid fossa.
327. Surface of the frontal bone that angles up and back of the glenoid fossa.

324. The forward and downward motion of the mandible is called _____.
325. Rotation
326. Eminentiva
327. Relation
328. Translation

325. The side-to-side movement of the mandible without a downward or forward movement is called _____.
326. Rotation movement
327. Eminentia movement
328. Bennett movement
329. Translation movement

326. The intercondylar distance is _____.
327. The distance from one condyle to the anterior teeth
328. The distance between the condyles
329. The distance from the condyle to the maxillary 1^st molar
330. The distance between the 1^st molars

327. An escapeway is described as:
328. Grooves that allow foodstuffs to escape from the occlusal interface.
329. Occlusal embrasures that allow foodstuffs to escape from the occlusal interface.
330. Grooves and embrasures that serve as pathway for the cusps to move without interferences.
331. All of these.
332. The functional side is the side that the:
333. Maxilla moves towards.
334. Maxilla moves away from.
335. Mandible moves away from.
336. Mandible moves towards.

329. The balancing side is the side that the:
330. Maxilla moves towards.
331. Maxilla moves away from.
332. Mandible moves away from.
333. Mandible moves towards.

330. Fully Balanced Occlusion is described as:
331. The simultaneous contact of the teeth on the functional side only.
332. The simultaneous contact of the teeth on the non-functional side only.
333. The simultaneous contact of the teeth on the functional and non-functional sides.
334. The simultaneous disclusion of the teeth on the non-functional side only.

331. Canine Guided Occlusion is described as:
332. The total disclusion of all posterior teeth at the moment lateral excursion is initiated.
333. The total occlusion of all posterior teeth at the moment lateral excursion is initiated.
334. The total disclusion of all posterior teeth at the moment centric occlusion is initiated.
335. The total disclusion of all anterior teeth at the moment lateral excursion is initiated.

332  Another way of describing Canine Guided Occlusion is:

1. Mutually Destructive Occlusion
2. Mutually Destructive Disclusion
3. Mutually Protective Occlusion
4. Mutually Protective Disclusion

333. Group Function Occlusion is described as:
334. All posterior teeth on the working side touch during function.
335. All anterior teeth touch in protrusive.
336. All posterior teeth on the balancing side disclude.
337. All of these

334. Only 2 teeth in the mouth have tooth-to-tooth contacts, they are:
335. The maxillary central and 3^rd
336. The maxillary central and mandibular 3^rd
337. The mandibular central and 3^rd
338. The mandibular central and maxillary 3^rd

335. The lateral functional contacts of the lingual side of the maxillary facial cusps to the mandibular facial cusps are known as _____.
336. Facial range.
337. Lingual range.
338. Lateral segment group function.
339. Canine guided lateral function.

336 The lateral functional contacts of the lingual side of the maxillary lingual cusps to the facial side of the mandibular lingual cusps are known as _____.

1. Facial range.
2. Lingual range.
3. Lateral segment group function.
4. Canine guided lateral function.

337  The contacting of the mesial arm of the mandibular facial cusps with the distal slope of the triangular ridge of the maxillary facial cusps in protrusive excursions is called _____.

1. Facial range protrusive nonfunctional contacts.
2. Facial range protrusive functional contacts.
3. Lingual range protrusive nonfunctional contacts.
4. Lingual range protrusive functional contacts.

338. The contacting of the distal arm of the maxillary lingual cusps with the mesial slope of the triangular ridge of the mandibular lingual cusps in protrusive excursions is called _____.
339. Facial range protrusive nonfunctional contacts.
340. Facial range protrusive functional contacts.
341. Lingual range protrusive nonfunctional contacts.
342. Lingual range protrusive functional contacts.

339. Which of the below muscle(s) action is to move the mandible laterally?

a.masseter                                             b. temporalis

1. external (lateral) pterygoid d. internal (medial) pterygoid

340. A simple way to organize posterior occlusal contact potential is to divide it into zones. Zone 1 is described as:
341. Facial incline of lower facial cusps against lingual incline of upper facial cusps: facial range function.
342. Lower facial cusp tip against upper central groove zone: facial range centric
343. Lingual incline of lower facial cusps against facial incline of upper lingual cusp: lateral non-function.
344. Upper lingual cusp tip against lower central groove zone: lingual range centric.
345. Lingual incline of upper lingual cusp against facial incline of lower lingual cusp: Lingual range function.

341. A zone 4 contact is described as:
342. Facial incline of lower facial cusps against lingual incline of upper facial cusps: facial range function.
343. Lower facial cusp tip against upper central groove zone: facial range centric
344. Lingual incline of lower facial cusps against facial incline of upper lingual cusp: lateral non-function.
345. Upper lingual cusp tip against lower central groove zone: lingual range centric.
346. Lingual incline of upper lingual cusp against facial incline of lower lingual cusp: Lingual range function.

342. Which of the below muscle(s) lifts the mandible and close the jaw.
343. masseter and internal (medial) pterygoid
344. temporalis and masseter
345. internal pterygoid and external (lateral)                                          pterygoid
346. masseter and external (lateral) pterygoid
347. If a stone cast is left in contact with an alginate impression after final set has occurred, the cast may exhibit;
348. Rough or chalky surface texture
349. Irregular shape voids
350. Distortion
351. Cracks

1. Among all the anterior teeth which central lobe is the longest, widest and most prominent?

1. Central              lateral
2. Cuspid              both a& b
3. The level of the vermillion border of the upper lip when it is completely relaxed is called__________
4. Lip support              lip line
5. Curve of arch              low lip line
6. 346, Name the gingival contour of the tooth that reflects light and gives tooth shape.

1. 1. High lip line           c.             height of contour
   2. Imbrications lines                d.             CEJ
   3. 346. Name the V shaped contour between the gingiva and the surface of the tooth.
   4. Gingival crevice   c.             gingival depression
   5. Gingival crest                        d.             all of he aboveThe apical portion of the gingival collar is called______________
   6. Gingival crevice   c.             gingival depression
   7. Gingival crest                        d.             all of he above

1. Name the small semicircular lines located in the gingival third area and diffuses light reflected from the surface area.
   1. high lip line                            c.             height of contour
   2. Imbrications lines                d.             CEJ
2. The upper teeth hold the upper lip forward providing_____________
   1. lip line                                    c.             lip curvature
   2. lip support                             d.             all of the above
3. The area along the crest of the lip bordered by the dry, reddish skin of the outer lip and the moist mucous membrane lining the lip is named___________________
   1. transitional border               c.             peripheral border
   2. labial border         d. vermillion border
4. Name the area located above the cervical line that helps to deflect food away from the gingiva.
   1. gingival crevice    c.             gingival depression
   2. gingival crest                         d.             gingival bulge
5. The contour of a tooth where it emerges from the gingiva is called_________
   1. emergence profile                c.             height of contour
   2. gingival crest                         d.             none of the above

352. Name this esthetic composition that has the following characteristics:

-centrals flat to the front, vertical axis tilted slight to distal

-laterals follow the curve and shorter than the centrals

-cuspids, about same length as laterals follow the curve rotated

facially 3 to 5 degrees emphasizing their prominence at the gingiva

1. basic esthetic composition b. soft esthetic composition
2. strong esthetic composition d. none of the above

353, Name the anatomical feature that is important when we communicate the arrangement of teeth in the patient’s mouth

1. transitional line angles b. gingival embrasure
2. communicating axes d. buccal corridor
3. Name the material that is recommended for use in cases of discolored teeth without appearing opaque
4. Lithium disilicate
5. Feldspathic porcelain
6. Alumina
7. Lithium phosphate

1. Name the material that is suitable in all areas of the oral cavity?

1. Leucite based ceramics
2. Zirconia
3. Alumina
4. Lithium disilicate

1. What is the flexural strength of the zirconium oxide?

1. 400 Mpa
2. 500Mpa
3. 900-1100 Mpa
4. 600 Mpa

1. The is a monophase ceramic material formed by directly sintered crystals together

1. Aluminum oxide
2. Silicium oxide
3. Yttria tetragonal zirconia polycristal
4. Zirconium dioxide

1. Which type of margins are required for a CAD restoration?

1. Rounded shoulder
2. Deep chamfer
3. Slice
4. a&b

1. What is the thickness requirement for posterior zirconia restoration?

1. .3mm
2. .5mm
3. .8mm
4. .6mm

1.  What type(s) of restorations are primarily constructed out of Leucite reinforced ceramics?

1. Ceramic frameworks
2. Single units
3. Copings with layering ceramics
4. Both a&c

1. Restorations such as  three unit anterior bridge to second premolars can be constructed out of_____________

1. Lithium disilicate
2. Leucite reinforced ceramics
3. Feldspathic porcelain
4. Glass ceramics

1. Restorations such as  three unit anterior bridge to first premolars can be constructed out of_____________

1. Glass ceramics with lithium disilicate
2. Feldspathic porcelain
3. Silicate based with lithium disilicate
4. Both a&c

1. Which of the following ceramics have low resistance value?

1. Zyrconia
2. Alumina
3. Silicate based ceramics
4. Lithium disilicate

1. The most valued propriety of silicate based ceramics is___________

1. Flexural strength
2. Fracture resistance
3. Translucency
4. Sag resistance

Which of the below all ceramic material